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UPSC CAPF AC 2026 Polity Previous Year Questions

8 questions with answers and explanations. Practice these interactively

Question 1

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Constitutional Amendment Act)
A. The Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act
B. The Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act
C. The Constitution (One Hundred and Fourth Amendment) Act
D. The Constitution (One Hundred and Sixth Amendment) Act

List-II (Major Amendment)
1. Constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes
2. Abolition of reservation of seats for Anglo-Indians in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies
3. Ten percent reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) in the Central Government jobs
4. Thirty-three percent reservation for women in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.

  1. (a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  2. (b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
  3. (c) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
  4. (d) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

Answer: (c)

Explanation

The 102nd Amendment Act (2018) gave constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes. The 103rd Amendment Act (2019) introduced 10% EWS reservation in central government jobs and education. The 104th Amendment Act (2020) abolished the reservation of seats for the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies. The 106th Amendment Act (2023), the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, provides 33% reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.

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Question 2

Which of the following statements about Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is/are correct?

1. In India, it adheres to the strict requirements imposed by the doctrine of locus standi.

2. Letters to judges may be treated as petitions.

3. M. C. Mehta vs. Union of India was a PIL that expanded the scope of Article 21 and Article 32 of the Constitution of India.

Select the answer using the code given below.

  1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 3 only
  4. (d) 1 and 2 only

Answer: (b)

Explanation

PIL in India is a deliberate departure from the strict doctrine of locus standi -- courts relaxed standing rules to allow any public-spirited person to approach them on behalf of those unable to do so themselves, so statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court has entertained even letters and postcards addressed to judges as writ petitions (epistolary jurisdiction), making statement 2 correct. M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India was a landmark PIL that significantly expanded judicial interpretation of Article 21 (right to life, including a clean environment) invoked through Article 32 (right to constitutional remedies), making statement 3 correct.

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Question 3

Which of the following statements in respect of the election of the President of India is/are correct?

1. By convention, the Secretary General, Lok Sabha or the Secretary General, Rajya Sabha is appointed as the Returning Officer by rotation.

2. Members of the Electoral College can vote according to their wish and are not bound by any party whip.

3. The provisions of NOTA are applicable.

Select the answer using the code given below.

  1. (a) 1 and 2
  2. (b) 2 and 3
  3. (c) 1 and 3
  4. (d) 1 only

Answer: (a)

Explanation

By convention, the Secretary General of the Lok Sabha and the Secretary General of the Rajya Sabha are appointed as Returning Officer for the presidential election by rotation, making statement 1 correct. Since a whip cannot be issued in a presidential election (it is not a matter decided by the party in Parliament), members of the Electoral College are free to vote as they wish, making statement 2 correct. NOTA (None of the Above) is not applicable in the presidential election, as it is an indirect election held through a secret ballot by an Electoral College, not a direct public vote -- so statement 3 is incorrect.

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Question 4

Which among the following subjects is not included in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

  1. (a) The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969
  2. (b) The General Insurance Business (Nationalization) Act, 1972
  3. (c) The Coal Mines (Taking over of management) Act, 1973
  4. (d) The Consumer Protection Act, 2019

Answer: (d)

Explanation

The Ninth Schedule contains a list of central and state laws (mostly related to land reforms and other socio-economic legislation) that are protected from judicial review under Article 31B. The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act 1969, the General Insurance Business (Nationalization) Act 1972, and the Coal Mines (Taking Over of Management) Act 1973 are all included in the Ninth Schedule. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 is a much later, unrelated consumer-rights law and is not part of the Ninth Schedule.

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Question 5

Which one of the following statements in respect of the North Eastern Council is correct?

  1. (a) The Council is the nodal agency under the Ministry of Home Affairs for the economic and social development of eight States in the North Eastern Region.
  2. (b) The Council consists of the Governors and Chief Ministers of eight North Eastern States along with three members nominated by the Governors of the respective States.
  3. (c) The Council was constituted in 1971 by an Act of the Parliament.
  4. (d) Manipur was added as the eighth member State in the North Eastern Council.

Answer: (c)

Explanation

The North Eastern Council was constituted in 1971 under the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. It originally covered seven states — Sikkim was added as the eighth member state in 2002, not Manipur. The Council is now under the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER), not MHA. Its composition includes Governors and Chief Ministers of the 8 states plus members nominated by the President, not by the Governors.

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Question 6

Match List-I with List-II and

select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Landmark Judgment)
A. A. K. Gopalan vs. State of Madras
B. K. M. Nanavati vs. State of Bombay
C. Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India
D. Shyam Narayan Chouksey vs. Union of India

List-II (Issue)
1. Whether Preventive Detention Act ultra vires the Fundamental Rights under the Constitution of India
2. Whether the National Anthem must be played before movies in theatres
3. Examining the power of suspension of sentence by the Governor under Article 161 of the Constitution of India
4. Whether right to go abroad is included in right under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India

  1. (a) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
  2. (b) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
  3. (c) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
  4. (d) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

Answer: (b)

Explanation

A.K. Gopalan vs. State of Madras (1950) tested the Preventive Detention Act against Fundamental Rights. K.M. Nanavati vs. State of Bombay dealt with the Governor's power to suspend a sentence under Article 161. Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India (1978) held that the right to go abroad flows from Article 21, linked here with Article 19(1)(a) reasoning in the question. Shyam Narayan Chouksey vs. Union of India concerned playing the National Anthem before films in theatres.

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Question 7

1. Since the States had an independent existence prior to the formation of the Federation, the Constitution of India provided for safeguards for protecting 'State rights', similar to the Constitution of the United States.

2. The residuary powers are reserved with the States under the Constitution of the United States, but these are with the Union under the Constitution of India.

3. The Constitution of India has followed the Irish Constitution in vesting the residuary powers.

Select the answer using the code given below.

  1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (b)

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect — unlike the US, Indian states did not have independent existence prior to the Union, so no special safeguards for 'State rights' were built in on that basis. Statement 2 is correct — in the US, residuary powers rest with the states, while in India they rest with the Union (Article 248, Union List). Statement 3 is incorrect — the Irish Constitution isn't the source for residuary power vesting; India's model here draws more from the Government of India Act, 1935 (Ireland's influence on India's Constitution is mainly Directive Principles of State Policy).

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Question 8

Which of the following are a part of the 'basic features' of the Constitution of India as drawn from various decisions of the Supreme Court?

1. Effective access to justice

2. Rule of Law

3. Limitations upon the amending power under Article 368

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 1 and 3 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation

The Basic Structure doctrine, evolved through Supreme Court judgments (notably Kesavananda Bharati and subsequent cases), recognizes all three as basic features: effective access to justice, rule of law, and limitations on Parliament's amending power under Article 368 (i.e., Parliament cannot amend the basic structure itself).

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